Spain Template‑class

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There needs to stop this incessant rewriting of history to make it seem like Portugal was contempt and in an completely equal relationship with the Spanish. There seems to be this de-Spanishizing of Philip to and Philip IV and force effort to equalize Spain and Portugal (essentuating their Portugueseness and removing any reference that they were Spanish kings and lived mainly in Spain with the interest of Spain as their first priority) in a way historians and contemporary would not have seen it as. The viceroy of Portugal is appointed to rule in the Castilian/Spanish kings place in all his component kingdoms including Portugal, Aragon, Siciliy, Sardinia, Navarre and etc.--The Emperor's New Spy (talk) 22:45, 12 September 2013 (UTC)Reply[reply]

This paragraph in Spanish Empire explains it all

According to this political configuration, independently of the denominations [5] given to the "dynastic union"[6][7] between 1580 and 1640, the scholars argue that the Portuguese Empire kept its own administration and jurisdiction over its territory as the other kingdoms and realms ruled by the Spanish Habsburgs.[8] Nevertheless, some historians assert that Portugal was a kingdom which formed part of the Spanish Monarchy at that time;[9][10][11][12][13] while others draw a clear distinction between the Portuguese and the Spanish Empires.[14][15]

I see plausibility in the second opinion, you the first. My question is what is the majority historical consensus?--The Emperor's New Spy (talk) 23:28, 12 September 2013 (UTC)Reply[reply]