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The term back formation is used in the linguistics community as well. This statement isn't entirely accurate—Trevor Caira 14:08, 29 July 2005 (UTC)
Fowler says both came from French "orienter", short in C18, long in C19.
Many of the "back-formations" listed here are not true back formations at all. I shall add a few of my own to the list at the bottom....
I'm not so sure of the accuracy of this section. "Utopia" is not genuinely Ancient Greek -- it was coined by Sir Thomas More in the 17th century. Although it's true that it would literally translate as "nowhere," as More described it, it was an idealized fantasy-land (akin to the more English expression "never-never-land"). So to use the word "utopia" or "utopian" to describe a perfect place, or perfection, isn't really due to reinterpretation of the word, or back-formation in particular. It's using the word in the sense with which it was intended.
I'm inclined to remove the paragraph. Any objections?
The examples donation and execution run counter to the definition of back-formation that is given in the first paragraph. The affix -tion was NOT "spuriously supposed" in these examples. The article needs to explain the difference between spuriously supposed affixes (like the holic in alcoholic) and legitimately supposed affixes (like the tion in donation and execution).-- Anon
The picture seems a little muddy here, particularly for isolate. Are we sure that isolate, as in "an isolate of ..." is back-formed from isolation and not derived from isolatum or some similar Latin form? Does this apply to any latinate verb ending in -ate, e.g., relate, inflate, gyrate, state (back-formed from station??) ...? What about similar forms with no corresponding -ation, e.g., date, rebate, debate, plate ...? If these are not back-formations, what's special about donate and isolate? -Dmh 16:09, 17 January 2006 (UTC)
Not sure about this. Though, as you say, most -tion and -ssion words are formed from supines, there are some -ion words formed from present stems, e.g. "opinion" and "region". "Resurrection"-->"resurrect", and some others, may well have been formed on the analogy of these. That said, your 1. is the most likely route. In Elizabethan times it was a rule that (Latinate) verbs ending with t and d sounds did not add "-ed" to form a past participle. Thus an adjective like "deject" (meaning downcast) could then be interpreted as the past participle of a verb "to deject"; and then when the Elizabethan taboo had disappeared, it could generate a secondary past participle "dejected". I am not at all sure about your 4. "Cantare" (and "saltare") are probably shortened frequentatives, formed by adding "-itare" to the present stem (like "volitare", to flutter), rather than by adding "are" to the supine stem. Can any real Latin scholar comment?
In some cases, the very same form has one historic and one back-formed use. For example, "process" (as in processed peas or data processing) versus "procéss" (walk in procession); "obsess" (this obsesses me) versus "obsess" (don't obsess about it).
"Cherry" is not a back-formation of "cherise". It is the normal evolution of a word taken over from one language into another language, in this case in fact several languages have been influential: Late Latin "ceresia" via Old North French "cherise" into the ultimate English "cherry", through several intermediate forms. It is a natural development that happens to most words. A back-formation is a neologism created from an already existing original form of a word which by having affixes added takes on a new inflection. Dieter Simon 00:47, 19 March 2006 (UTC)
Are comparative linguist and organic chemist considered back-formation? I think they are better described as subtraction, but I'm not sure. When you reanalyze editor as edit and -or, edit becomes basic and editor becomes a result of suffixation. However, comparative linguistics and organic chemistry remain basic even when comparative linguist and organic chemist are created. There's no reanalysis. - TAKASUGI Shinji 09:18, 13 April 2006 (UTC)
The article says: "Some regard such divergence as incorrect, or as a mark of ignorance. Others assert that a language is determined by its usage and that strictly applying such a principle of correctness would render English a highly irregular blend of Anglo-Saxon, Latin, French and every other language from which it had ever borrowed." (Isn't it anyway??)
I think most people would judge different examples piecemeal, depending on how long the particular word has been in use. For example, I regard singulars such as "bicep", "specie" (except in the sense of "money in specie") and "serie" as unforgivably awful, but have no problem in accepting "asset" and "diplomat". As in most cases, the best advice is that of Pope: "Be not the first by whom the new are try’d, Nor yet the last to lay the old aside". -- Sir Myles na Gopaleen (the da) 13:47, 17 May 2006 (UTC)
Disgruntled is an adjective like saddened, not like sad, and 'gruntled' is a word. It's the past tense of the intransitive verb 'gruntle' "to grunt or sulk". The word 'gruntled' was always a mistake. The prefix dis- marks the verb transitive, and therefore allows someone to be disgruntled. One cannot be gruntled. Interestingly, 'gruntle' was back-formed to mean "cause to be more favorably inclined". RoseWill 11:16, 28 June 2006 (UTC)
Are words ending in 'aholic' (from alcoholic) truly "back-formations"? and if so, i'd like to see them listed... as they are truly annoying to language pedants. ;-)
This surely is trolling? So-called black-formation, who is calling it so, does the term really exist? It needs citing its sources. A conjugated noun? Do we mean inflected noun, or uninflected noun? Perceived high degree of use in African-American pop culture? You really will have to tell us who established these facts. Conversate? If there is any substance to this, please re-enter with full citation of sources. Have rolled back and am waiting to be informed of these facts. Dieter Simon 00:54, 20 September 2006 (UTC)
I'm not seeing dystopia as a backformation of utopia. Topia might be one, but then 1) I don't know of topia being used in English and 2) for all I know, topia is an actual Latin(?) word. --Badger151 05:21, 14 October 2006 (UTC)
dystopia is a backformation in the same way that cheeseburger and beefburger are - the incorrect assumption by whoever coined the term was that 'topia' was a suffix to which 'dys' could be added as a suffix. Adambrowne666 11:09, 14 October 2006 (UTC)
Actually, maybe I should take that back - from the dystopia article, it seems 'topia' is kind of a legitimate suffix, so maybe it's not a backformation after all. Not sure what to think now. Adambrowne666 02:15, 15 October 2006 (UTC)
"Bicep" and "quadricep" - as if "biceps" and "quadriceps" are actually plural forms. GregorB (talk) 17:26, 20 August 2008 (UTC)
Back-formation is distinguished from clipping because they change the part of speech
Except that back-formation doesn't necessarily change the part of speech, as illustrated by the examples that derive a noun from a noun. 72.75.81.72 (talk) 20:27, 28 June 2009 (UTC)
"...leading to the back-formation pea."
Is this correct? --Jwitch (talk) 12:45, 27 August 2009 (UTC)
The article begins by distinguishing these two concepts, but does not make it clear enough that back-formation is completely unrelated to clipping. The reader is left with a sense that back-formation is a sort of sub-category of clipping, which is quite incorrect.
Clipping is a phonological reduction of an existing form, where back-formation is the creation of a spurious derivation based on a false analogy, as in graduate : graduation :: (administrate) : administration
, where "administrate" would be a back-formation from "administration". Clipping, on the other hand, requires no such thing (chute : parachute :: ???? : ????
) This is why back-formation can change the part of speech (though it need not), while clipping cannot. The former is analysis (though incorrect) while, the latter is simple abbreviation. Fader (talk) 16:17, 5 March 2010 (UTC)
Don't worry, I do actually understand the article! It's just I've seen someone I know use "derstand" as a comical opposite of "understand" (with "un" usually being a negative affix, of course). I'm wondering how well-known this one is and if it deserves a mention in the article, if only due to "understand" being a rather common verb. Thanks, Ը२ձւե๓ձռ17 21:37, 15 April 2010 (UTC)
It's a weak one, if you ask me, mainly because it's obviously not an actual case. The "administrate" case I mention above is actual language on the hoof - I actually had to edit that out of a letter written by the CEO of the company I was working for at the time. There are plenty of good examples, I don't see any reason why this spurious case would need to go in. But it's your encyclopedia, put it in if you think it goes in. --Fader (talk) 03:10, 23 November 2010 (UTC)
"derstand"!? This is terrible. It would be funnier if the person said that he overstands
What about the terms denoting nucleic acid hybridization? First, hybridization of DNA was invented by Prof. Edwin Southern and termed Southern blotting. Later, hybridization of RNA was developed and termed, correspondingly, Northern blotting. Zwyciezca (talk) 03:44, 16 June 2011 (UTC)
Judging from the etymology of "disdain," the example from Scrubs is not true back-formation. "Deign" is a word, and though it is spelled differently in the modern spelling of "disdain," it means to "regard as worthy" or to respect. From that word is derived the word "disdain." So if the script of Turk's line was spelled "deign," then he would not be inventing a word.Cdg1072 (talk) 20:19, 1 November 2012 (UTC)
Is back-formation something that it is considered in languages that are more morphologically regular for given sets of lexemes, or does it tend to just be classed as "back-formation" in languages that have inherited a set of lexemes that is internally consistent, but that do not themselves fit into the morphology of the wider target language (like English can be with certain Latin/Greek lexemes)? — Sasuke Sarutobi (talk) 18:37, 31 August 2017 (UTC)
Is galvanization correctly described as a "back-formation", or is it something else?
Luigi Galvani discovered 'animal electricity' and the ability to make non-living animal tissue move by applying an electric current to it. This gave rise to a widespread early 19th century field of Galvanism, the largely quackery pseudo-medical 'science' of applying electricity to the living for fun and profit. This was so successful that it led a paint maker, who had discovered a new and effective means of rustproofing iron, to term it 'galvanic paint', despite having no evident connection to Galvani's work or to Galvanism. It was a success and the rustproofing technique based on applying a zinc coating is still widespread today under the name galvanisation. Yet Galvani had no part in this, and the name is a most indirect formation from Galvani's.
Thanks for any linguistic pointers. Andy Dingley (talk) 19:22, 15 January 2020 (UTC)