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@Crossroads: As I said, Burton's theory of the Sotadic Zone (1886) was formulated in the second half of the 19th century, it has historical value, and is discussed in academic works that focus on the History of human sexuality and LGBT studies. In my opinion, it should be included in this article, since it's strongly related to the subject of pederasty and the academic fields that I previously mentioned. I propose to write a section dedicated to the Sotadic Zone in order to avoid misconceptions.--GenoV84 (talk) 21:11, 27 September 2020 (UTC)
Sir Richard Francis Burton (1821–1890), Victorian explorer and writer, circulated the stereotype of Eastern “perversity” that might appeal to a homosexual audience in the mid-1800’s because of its homoeroticism. Although he was reputedly sexually interested in men himself, he was very clear that he viewed homosexuality as “un-British.” In 1885, he made headline news when he published his scandalous “Terminal Essay,” addressing a number of “interpretive” issues related to his translation of the anonymous Arabian classic, The Arabian Nights. In this essay, which was removed by the publishers from later editions, he expounded his theory on the origins of homosexuality using the terms “vice,” “inversion,” and “pederasty.” He mapped out an area in which he argued that the “vice” was not just prevalent but endemic. This area extended from the North African countries of Morocco, Algeria, and Tunisia to Egypt and the Syrian-Arabic peninsula. He called it the “Sotadic Zone,” derived from the name of the Greek poet Sotades as a euphemism for “sexual inversion.” According to Burton, climate was seen to facilitate pathological love, not race, as argued by most of his contemporaries. Although his theory is empirically useless, he challenged Victorian public thinking that stigmatized male homosexuality and theorizing about homosexuality in terms of cultural evolution.
— Markwell, Kevin (2008). "The Lure of the "Sotadic Zone"". The Gay & Lesbian Review Worldwide. 15 (2). Excerpted and reprinted with permission from Waitt, Gordon; Markwell, Kevin (2006). Gay Tourism: Culture and Context. New York: Haworth Press. ISBN 978-0-7890-1602-7.
--GenoV84 (talk) 22:32, 27 September 2020 (UTC)
We expect that in all cultures the vast majority of individuals are sexually predisposed exclusively to the other sex (i.e., heterosexual) and that only a minority of individuals are sexually predisposed (whether exclusively or non-exclusively) to the same sex.Burton was wrong about the prevalence of this practice. And needless to say, he was wrong about climate having anything to do with human sexuality. We should not be using him or a fancy map derived from his statements here, as it lends authority to fringe and wrong ideas. And we would all the more err on the side of not including it if it involves tying half the world's cultures to a widely reviled practice. Crossroads -talk- 01:08, 28 September 2020 (UTC)
References
https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/abs/10.3149/jms.0902.183 — Preceding unsigned comment added by Ilh758 (talk • contribs) 12:16, 1 March 2021 (UTC)
The dictionary definition of pederasty is of the act and not confined to ancient cultures, I think that should be made clear even if the editors For this article which to keep the subject matter strictly to when the exact term has been used. Dakinijones (talk) 03:25, 10 September 2021 (UTC)
I think it's not fair to only put these two examples I think from West Asia to Africa and the Americas because life expectancy was so low it was obvious at that time pederasty was happening and also to girls since they were married off as soon as their first menstrual cycle. So we just can't say it was a specific homosexual thing but rather common due to people dying at age 35 to 40 unlike now people can even age to 100. Nlivataye (talk) 07:16, 12 May 2023 (UTC)
I think we should continue to summarize the "Modern view" section in the lead. Word0151 either disagrees or thinks the summary should be changed somehow. Word, could you tell use more about your objections? Is there a way to rephrase rather than remove? Firefangledfeathers (talk / contribs) 16:26, 7 February 2024 (UTC)
I've lived in Britain all my life, and I've never heard it pronounced with an "iː" before, so I did some research. Credible sources on British English (as used) [1] [2] suggest there doesn't seem to be much difference between our pronunciation and the American one, apart from maybe a minor stress difference.
The only source I can find that uses "piːdə-" is an entry in Merriam-Webster's (anecdotally, a poor source for Commonwealth English), and even that doesn't use the IPA.
(Note: I imagine this is where the error comes from, the initial edit in 2009 also uses the exact same non-IPA respelling system).
The greek root παιδε is sometimes pronounced "piːdə" in the UK for words like "Paedophile" -- I can definitely see someone making a generalisation that, therefore, every word with that root must have a separate British pronunciation.
Funnily enough, other Wikiprojects (and Wiktionary) just list both as valid British pronunciations? [3] I don't know. I don't think there's enough evidence to warrant a separation, but there could be something I'm ignoring/that I've missed.
References
Titfortat-skag (talk) 21:13, 19 March 2024 (UTC)