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I am not a law student and I am not a lawer, I just want a very simple explanation of what Roman law meens. As I understand it it goes something like this: If it is not legalised then it is illegal. Am I right? Please keep your answers free of legal jargon I really do not understand it. Thanks.
Roman law is a huge subject (as I'm finding out, as a law student) and although an article shouldn't necessarily be a full treatise on the subject, there is a lot more that could be explained here. I am thinking of refactoring the style a bit and explaining about procedural issues, the actions of the law, praetorian jurisdiction, all that kind of stuff which I think is not in the article in sufficient detail. Eulen 20:09, 26 October 2005 (UTC)
yeah good idea...i think someone should make a template just for roman law and remove this one about roman state in general (or incorporate it in somehow?). It should go something like: origines of r. law/ family law/ rights in rem (or however u call it in english?)/ law of obligations etc....
what about the neo roman, witch is the sistem still in use in several countries, such as Mexico and most Latin America. Perhaps the term is not commonly used in English,but, for example, in Mexico the sistem is called as "Derecho neo-romano" or neo roman law.
can someone translate this form latin: "Textus digestorum cum glossis et notis iuris consultorum medii aevi" so that we can put a photo from latin wiki here.
I think it means: "Text of the digest with glosses and notes by medieval legal advisors." Martg76 23:05, 25 October 2005 (UTC)
cool, tnx
There doesn't seem to be much here about Roman litigation. I'll add some stuff. --David.Mestel 21:40, 6 February 2006 (UTC)
I know quite a lot about Roman litigation, so I'll write an article about it, but I've got to go now, so I can't until to-morrow morning. --David.Mestel 21:57, 6 February 2006 (UTC)
Someone please help me. What is this Praetor's Edict nautis cauponibus et stabulariis? A fully explanation with example based on its application in the South African system will help me so much
It's not the right place to ask about this, but I'd point you to Google. Basically the edict establishes responsibility for sailors, owners of stables, and hospitality establishments. In so far as sailors are concerned, they have responsibility for the goods in their care from the time when they are given them to the time when they are given back for any damages (except vis maior). Eulen 00:29, 23 February 2006 (UTC)
Miskin added:
Whereas the influence of Greek philosophical thought on Roman law is widely acknowledged, these assertions seem rather bold. According to Kunkel (1966):
The information you provided seems debatable, at least. Please provide a citation to show that this is indeed the consensus, or otherwise change the wording of your text accordingly. Iblardi 00:21, 8 March 2007 (UTC)
First of all, I don't understand how removing an entire section is equivalent to improvement. Secondly your own 1966 source seems to be misinterpreted. The "post-Classical" notion normally refers to the Western Roman Empire, there's no implication from this citation that the author is referring to the Justinian code. Secondly, your source _does_ take for granted that a Greek influence did exist (regardless of the period he's referring to), but he only questions "the extent". So by blanking out mainstream information instead of editing, you're obviously damaging the article. This means that no matter what period he refers to, the reference on the Greek-Hellenistic element on the Byzantine code is correct. But first things first, how can you prove that the author is referring to the Justinian code? The edit in question was specifically about the law of Constantinople, and not "post-classical" law in general. Miskin 00:56, 8 March 2007 (UTC)
If you prove that the citation talks about the Justinian code, then you may add to the section that "the extent of this influence is disputed" or something along those lines. There is no basis on removing the edits. That is iff the 1966 author is talking about the same thing. Miskin 01:09, 8 March 2007 (UTC)
This paragraph was just removed from the introduction. I've restored it to the article, but any concerns should be discussed here. Robotman1974 23:25, 28 March 2007 (UTC)
Just curious. Has no-one ever made the connection between the ten Roman tablets 'copied' from Solon's writings c. 638 BC–558 BCE and the Israelite Torah with it's core of Ten Commandments that had been around since 1280 BCE? By the time Solon was around, the Jewish Oral Law had been known widely because it was used in all dealings within and outside of the Jewish society, including the Greeks.--Mrg3105 08:35, 21 August 2007 (UTC)
A friend of mine is doing a Law degree at Cambridge and she was recently told by one of her Roman law lecturers that he frequently changes dates on wikipedia by a year or two, in an attempt to 'catch' students who use wikipedia. So someone might want to check all dates on here relating to Roman law because apparently his edits rarely get noticed. Will Bradshaw (talk) 15:06, 17 April 2009 (UTC)
Stoicism: A divire intellgegce ruled Nature. The one good thing in life was having a good chariter. "Living Nightly" neant agreing with nature. Sticism also was a greek school of thougts. Upper class Roman's adopted this Philosophy.71.59.144.105 (talk) 23:32, 15 October 2009 (UTC)
I am new to the editing part of wikipedia. I just do not understand how to add a reference source to an article that is using reflist. I have searched many places and have not found anything to help me. I am not understanding something and would love some help. (Markusjca (talk) 17:50, 13 April 2010 (UTC))
I got my answer and thank you for the quick, excellent help. (Markusjca (talk) 20:23, 13 April 2010 (UTC))
Today, Roman law is no longer applied in legal practice What is this meant to mean? If it means that Roman Law isn't cited in court, it's wrong, as in Scotland Roman law is not infrequently cited to this day; eg Zahnrad Fabrik v Terex 1985 SC 364, Marandi v Bon Accord Glass 2007 (unreported), Moncrieff v Jamieson 2008SC (HL) 1, and so on... 83.217.173.196 (talk) 21:27, 7 March 2011 (UTC)
I have found a lot of references, written by people with an axe to grind, that refers to the modern versions of the Napoleonic Code as deriving from Roman Law which presumes guilt - the accused must prove that they are innocent. Some sort of statement about this needs to be made someplace. As I recall (sorry, haven't read the article), the actual law of downtown Ancient Rome consisted of what we would call "torts" where the defendant might be on trial for his life, with the prosecution brought by just about anybody. Nobles were somewhat exempt from this. (For that matter, Socrates was tried in Athens, under Greek law, that way, so maybe prevalent in the ancient world). Anyway... Student7 (talk) 20:26, 23 October 2011 (UTC)
The article is a poor one. It does not reflect any deep or sophisticated knowledge of the subject. It should be rewritten, or replaced, by someone more knowledgeable. 173.21.54.229 (talk) 17:47, 3 March 2013 (UTC)
Some of the following, maybe all of it, or something like it, may belong in this article and/or in the manus marriage article (I'm posting to both talk pages) or perhaps elsewhere:
A woman in manu had little independent legal standing, but a freeborn Roman woman was regarded as a citizen,<ref>Frier, Bruce W., & Thomas A.J. McGinn, A Casebook on Roman Family Law (Oxford University Press, 2004), pp. 31–32 & 457 & passim.<br /> Sherwin-White, A.N., Roman Citizenship (Oxford University Press, 1979), pp. 211 & 268.</ref> and not as property with a transferrable right of ownership; the essential distinction in the Roman "law of persons"((Efn|[[Legal personality]], a person's capacity to have legal rights and obligations under a given system of law))((Efn|[[Roman law]], the legal system of ancient Rome, including personal law)) was that all human beings were either free (liberi) or slaves (servi).<ref>Frier, Bruce W., and Thomas A.J. McGinn, A Casebook on Roman Family Law, op. cit., p. 14, citing Gaius, Institutiones 1.9 = Digest 1.5.3.</ref> Only free people in good legal standing could contract a lawful marriage, and men were often prohibited by law from marrying women of markedly lower social status.<ref>Millar, Fergus, Empire and City, Augustus to Julian: Obligations, Excuses and Status, in Journal of Roman Studies, 73 (1983), p. 88.</ref> In the better-documented historical period, and certainly by the time of Cicero and Caesar, manus marriage had become virtually obsolete; a woman remained legally part of her birth family and was never placed under the authority of her husband.<ref>Frier, Bruce W., and Thomas A.J. McGinn, A Casebook on Roman Family Law, op. cit., pp. 19–20.<br/> Rawson, Beryl, The Roman Family, in The Family in Ancient Rome: New Perspectives (Cornell University Press, 1986), p. 15.</ref>
It's from a recent revision of the wife selling article (not the first appearance of similar content), with a little editing; it didn't belong there. I'd rather that someone else made the judgment for this article, as I haven't gotten the source.
Nick Levinson (talk) 19:40, 20 July 2013 (UTC) (Clarified link's relevance: 19:46, 20 July 2013 (UTC))
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I am a law student in Spain and I am reading the article and the comments. A1 quality. Thank you! — Preceding unsigned comment added by 88.8.87.76 (talk) 09:42, 5 February 2017 (UTC)
Hello people,
There need to be better citations at the end with the publisher and the date of the release of the book, not just the title, author and page number. Also I think that the first part could be streamlined and made more clear. I don't know if I feel qualified yet to do this sort of editing. I also think there need to be more citations in general.
Cheers.
Herstory1 (talk) 00:44, 2 April 2017 (UTC)
As a student of the Roman Republic I feel as though the laws are a very important aspect of understanding their sociopolitical environment. I think that the section on classical roman laws should be expanded upon and could potentially be an interesting topic to further research and provide examples for. My professor asked that we answer one of her evaluating questions, so I will be answering the question "Are there viewpoints that are overrepresented, or underrepresented?" I think that this article under-represents the importance of the specific laws and briefly goes over them instead of highlighting their importance on Roman society. The article could definitely go more in depth in regards to the twelve tables and classical roman laws. While I think the writers in the article do a great job of speaking directly about facts, I do not think that there is enough detail and I think that topics are glazed over instead of explained more fully. Fyoliveira1 (talk) 03:20, 3 April 2017 (UTC)
Near the end of the first paragraph under the heading "The Twelve Tables", I find this excerpt: "In 450 BC, the decemviri produced the laws on ten tablets (tabulae), but these laws were regarded as unsatisfactory by the plebeians. A second decemvirate is said to have added two further tablets in 449 BC. The new Law of the Twelve Tables was approved by the people's assembly."
This representation of the revision of the twelve tables implies that the addition of the final two "tables" was an action incited by the plebeians. According to Livy in Book III.33, he notes that it was in fact the first decemvirate that opened critique up to the masses and encouraged a review of their ten "tables". Livy suggests that this revision was encouraged by the decemvirate and not a correction demanded by the plebeians and their dissatisfaction as (I feel) the passage from the current page represents.
-Trinity2017 (talk) 16:53, 3 April 2017 (UTC)
The last piece of text in the section on ius publicum and ius privatum reads "and they are not used when party shares something and are in contrary." This is either dense technical jargon or the editor fell asleep half way through. Could someone please fix it? Shannock9 (talk) 05:02, 17 June 2017 (UTC)
I (glanced through / read) the first 50 years of (University Law) just before Justinian. It's a book of law, coherent and in order, just like today's law books are. (it contains regulations as well as law, such as road construction regulations)
This article links only to Roman Laws that were CORRUPT and later REPEALED. Furthermore: the page doesn't link to any "FULL TEXT" - it links only to a few laws and even these are not given: instead, some wikipedia idiot's idea of what the law meant without ever citing the original text
THIS ARTICLE IN THE PAST WAS GOOD. IT HAS BEEN HACKED. IT HAS ZERO VALUE.
it has many references to germany and england which have perfectly NOTHING to do with Greek colleges, Roman study of that and thier additions, and the rise of "fairness" in Roman law that became "University law" (around the time of Justinia, though justinian wrote many religious laws which were repealed as "good but not legal material")
the article is a piece of liberal counter intelligence, it's that simple — Preceding unsigned comment added by 2600:8806:400:4EF0:1D17:9294:6680:E568 (talk) 02:18, 3 February 2018 (UTC)
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Change: They also found the distinction between contract and tort as sources of legal obligations. To: They also established the distinction between contract and tort as sources of legal obligations.
The use of "found" does not make sense in that sentence. Kurt.thomas (talk) 21:36, 14 March 2019 (UTC)
I'm surprised that hardly anything is mentioned about canon law, given that both Roman law and canon law were studied together for centuries, beginning at Bologna. The study of Roman law is required as part of a JCL or JCD in canon law today. A lot of procedure as well as language in canon law comes from Roman law. (Heck, canon law is also still in Latin!) Gratian, the father of canon law, borrowed heavily from the corpus iuris civilis in his Decretum. Perhaps a mention alongside civil law in the introduction or in the Today section? — Preceding unsigned comment added by 50.227.61.186 (talk) 01:03, 7 July 2019 (UTC)
'For example, Constantine started putting restrictions on the ancient Roman concept of patria potestas, the power held by the male head of a family over his descendants, by acknowledging that persons in potestate, the descendants, could have proprietary rights. He was apparently making concessions to the much stricter concept of paternal authority under Greek-Hellenistic law.'
'Stricter' seems a bit ambiguous to me - the main point is obviously that the paternal authority was less encompassing. Wouldn't a clearer phrasing be 'the more limited concept of paternal authority'? 62.73.69.121 (talk) 20:32, 15 February 2024 (UTC)